The Supreme Court ruled that failure to issue a mandatory notice under Section 143(2) invalidates income tax reassessment proceedings, even if taxpayers participate in them
Markets regulator Sebi on Tuesday extended the deadline by six months, till April 27, 2027, for debenture trustees to comply with requirements governing activities that fall outside its regulatory purview. Under Regulation 9C of the Sebi (Debenture Trustees) Regulations, 1993, a debenture trustee holding a valid certificate of registration is required to transfer activities not regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) to separate business units within a prescribed timeline. The provision was introduced through amendments notified on October 27, 2025, to provide clarity on the scope of activities permitted for debenture trustees. Sebi had initially given six months for compliance. Subsequently, in April 2026, the regulator granted an additional six months, extending the deadline to October 27, 2026, following industry representations highlighting operational challenges in establishing the necessary systems and processes. In its latest circular on Tuesday, Sebi
Market regulator Sebi on Friday eased the mandatory requirement for research analysts to maintain call recordings of their interactions with institutional investors to reduce compliance burden and improve ease of doing business. In a circular, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) said research analysts and entities will no longer be mandatorily required to maintain call recordings of interactions with institutional investors. However, they will continue to be required to maintain records of their interactions with all clients, including prospective clients, through means such as signed physical records, emails, SMS messages, call recordings or any other legally verifiable method. The records are required to be maintained for five years. In cases where a dispute has been raised, the records will have to be preserved until its resolution. They also need to be retained if Sebi directs that specific records be preserved. The regulator clarified that call recordings are not
CBIC Chairman Vivek Chaturvedi says AI, machine learning and real-time analytics can lower transaction costs and help create a near-touchless customs system for businesses
Industry executives as well as merchants have said the government's amended e-commerce rules, while well-intentioned on consumer protection and transparency, could impose a disproportionate compliance burden on small sellers and MSMEs who form the bulk of sellers on online marketplaces, particularly around ranking disclosures and price-history requirements. The Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2026, notified by the Department of Consumer Affairs, will come into force from January 1, 2027, replacing the 2020 rules. The amended framework covers disclosure of ranking parameters, sponsored listings, a new "prior price" requirement for discount claims, compliance with the 2023 dark patterns guidelines, and mandatory partnership with the National Consumer Helpline. A senior industry executive said the broad objective of strengthening consumer protection and transparency is welcome, but some of the provisions need closer examination from the standpoint of the small seller
The fact that the BIS statute is mandated by different ministries and that the process can take up to six months adds to investment complexities
Companies are increasingly adopting AI and automation in payroll management, though concerns over data privacy, compliance and governance continue to shape deployment strategies
Overlaps between Labour Codes and state laws on working hours, leave and overtime may create compliance uncertainty, especially for firms operating across multiple states
India's food ecosystem is vast, diverse, and rapidly evolving - spanning everything from street vendors and small manufacturers to large-scale food processors and global exporters
The Jan Vishwas legislation will substantially ease the compliance burden on businesses, accelerate dispute resolution, and improve ease of doing business in the country, strengthening investor sentiment, India Inc said on Friday. Parliament on Thursday passed the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026, to amend 784 provisions in 79 central laws for decriminalising and rationalising minor offences to further improve the business environment and check harassment of people. "By decriminalising over 1,000 offences across 79 Acts and rationalising penalties, the reform brings greater clarity, predictability, and proportionality in compliance, strengthening ease of doing business, encouraging entrepreneurship and innovation, and reinforcing India's position as a globally competitive investment destination," FICCI President Anant Goenka said. CII Director General Chandrajit Banerjee said the bill reaffirms India's resolve to build a modern, trust-based regulatory environment ...
India has notified the Income-tax Rules, 2026 ahead of April 1 rollout. From EV tax perks and expanded HRA benefits to tighter crypto reporting and no change in tax slabs,
The Bill, prepared by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), has proposed amendments to 355 provisions under 16 central laws administered by 10 govt departments, ministry
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Proposal seeks to lessen compliance burden on taxpayers and avoid litigation
In a statement, DGCA informed that currently, there are two primary Civil Aviation Requirements (CARs) governing the continuing airworthiness of aircraft: CAR-M and CAR-145
This comes as Zomato Payments, the wholly owned subsidiary of food delivery platform Zomato, voluntarily surrendered the certificate of authorisation issued by the RBI
To facilitate ease of doing business, Sebi has proposed that certain changes in the private placement memorandum of alternative investment funds can be submitted directly to the regulator rather than through a merchant banker. Also, the proposed move would rationalise the cost of compliance for alternative investment funds (AIFs). In its draft circular, Sebi said that certain changes carried out in private placement memorandum (PPM) are not required to be filed through merchant bankers and can be filed directly to the regulator. These included changes in the size of the fund, information related to affiliates, commitment period, key investment team of the manager and key management personnel of AIF, and reduction in expense or fee or cost charged to fund/investors. Additionally, changes in contact details of AIF, sponsor, manager, trustee or custodian, risk factors and track records of investment manager, among others, are not required to be filed through a merchant banker. The ..
She said that the emphasis of the government has been on system reforms to throw out unnecessary laws that may become an instrument in the hands of rent-seekers
Consolidates 21 existing instructions; Audited returns to be filed within five days of signing reports
With an aim to promote ease of doing business and compliance reporting, Sebi on Tuesday came out with measures for centralization of certifications under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) and Common Reporting Standard (CRS) at KYC Registration Agencies. Under this, the regulator has directed intermediaries, who are reporting to financial institutions (RFI), to upload the certifications under FATCA and CRS obtained from the clients in the system of KYC Registration Agencies (KRAs) from July 1. The existing certifications obtained from clients prior to July 1, 2024 will be uploaded by the intermediaries onto the systems of KRAs within a period of 90 days of implementation of the new rule, Sebi said in its circular. The onus of obtaining and reporting the FATCA and CRS certification and related compliances will lie with the respective intermediaries. Going by Sebi's circulars issued in 2015, and guidance note on FATCA and CRS norms laid down by the Ministry of Finance, RF