This refers to the report "Link between BJP's electoral plans, UP riots need probing" (September 15). B Rajeshwari has not provided any evidence to prove that whenever the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) wants to rise in a geographical sector, it engineers a communal riot. Her categorisation of riots, before India became independent, in three or four time segments is theoretical. The 1946 riots in Bengal-Bihar provinces were not started by the cries of Hindutva. Her next theory that such riots are deliberately orchestrated by the majority community is far from the reality. Riots have almost always been triggered by small sparks and not by the BJP alone because the party was not in existence in those decades. Its predecessor organisation, the Jana Sangha was not accused for such misdemeanours.
The third proposition stated by her is also without any evidence. If the riots that took place after the nineties were for political and economic interests coming in conflict between two communities, how does one justify the role of the BJP? Would it be correct to say that the BJP's instatement in states such as Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat and Rajasthan was because of the riots for which it is allegedly held to be responsible?
G R Saha, Kolkata
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